Friday, February 24, 2012
The Eighteenth Brumaire
Marx is well known for changing how we conduct socio-historical investigations. Since him, historians concern themselves primarily with things at the "material conditions" level. Rarely do we find any thorough contemporary text on past history without a strong grounding in the tangibles of that time (however loose the criteria for such tangibles may be). Certainly there is talk of changes in ideologies from one time or another, but it is usually accompanied with whatever social, economic, or otherwise material conditions that may have brought about that change.
Marx wrote The Eighteenth Brumaire very soon after the events he writes about take place. I'm no Marx historian, but a quick glance at the dates suggest that he was already well established in the philosophical-political scene, already having written the Communist Manifesto several years prior. Assuming that his materialist conception of history had already gained popularity by the time of the events of Louis Bonaparte's coup, we can expect to see most histories of these events to follow the scheme that Marx has set up. (If I may concede a little, I know there's a lot of assumption going on and I may not be entirely accurate. This section is more of a set-up for the next.)
Rather than asserting some positive thesis, I want to propose a kind of thought experiment challenge for the commenters. What would the events from 1848 to 1851 look like in history if it did not follow the model that Marx has provided? How would a Hegelian or some early historian before him approach this bit of history (assuming a Hegelian would actually bother with something concrete)? Would we start with a change in ideology and then somehow draw conclusions about the rest of a historical time period from there? Since we're so grounded in doing history from a "material conditions" point of view, it seems hard to isolate ourselves from that approach and do something different and earlier. Where would we even begin?
Friday, February 17, 2012
Morality and Aesthetics
First of all, I want to admit that I know next to nothing about aesthetics, particularly Hegel’s aesthetics. That being said, I thought that there were some interesting connections to aesthetics in the ‘morality’ chapter we read for last class. First of all, Hegel talks about different kinds of harmony that are connected with morality. Hegel identifies two different ‘postulates’ about different harmonies involving morality: “The first postulate was the harmony of morality and objective Nature, the final purpose of the world; the other, the harmony of morality and the sensuous will, the final purpose of self-consciousness as such” (369). It seems like Hegel is saying that in is consciousness’ responsibility to bring about these harmonies, although he doesn’t exactly tell us what that would entail. He does, however, say that “consciousness has… to bring about this harmony and continually to be making progress in morality” (368). Without this harmony (either with objective Nature and/or with the sensuous) presumably morality wouldn’t be what it is. Besides this reference to harmony, Hegel also describes the rational, Kantian moral agent as a ‘beautiful soul’. The beautiful soul is the soul that can understand and properly apply the categorical imperative to particular situations. This beautiful soul, however, is not the final synthesis, but itself divides into acting and judging consciousness.
As I said, I don’t know much about aesthetics, however one similarity that immediately stands out to me is that both morality (or ethics more generally speaking) and aesthetics involve a kind of judgment that seems qualitatively different that other kinds of knowledge or belief. One might say that one makes a scientific ‘judgment’ about the world, but this seems different to me. This kind of knowledge claim seems of a different kind than one concerning morality or aesthetics. Perhaps what Hegel is pointing to in talking about morality and harmony and the beautiful together is that being able to perform one kind of judgment helps you perform the other. If aesthetic judgment is similar to moral judgment, then being able or good at one would help you make the other kind. This would seem to imply that learning how to make aesthetic judgments would help one make judgments about morality. If this is true, then aesthetics is a subject that would be incredibly important to teach, starting at an early age.
Interestingly enough, in the Republic, Plato makes the argument that a proper education consists of physical and musical parts. Perhaps what he intends in this musical education is learning the ability to make aesthetic judgments about particular harmonies within the music. This skill would then have very real practical consequences for the way someone with a ‘philosophical’ education would make moral judgments. Is this an appropriate connection to make? Are the connections between morality and aesthetics in Hegel as pronounced as I see them? Maybe someone with a little more experience with aesthetics can show me why this does or doesn’t make sense.
Hegel and Moral Development Theory
I am trying to see the connection between the development in moral reasoning as hypothesized in psychology and the discussion of morality as given by Hegel. However, I do not know that there is a direct or easy translation. I also don’t feel confident enough with the text to really make a statement about how it relates to moral development.
Do we see a development in Hegel’s writing that could be likened to that of a child? Or are the conflicts in the Phenomenology more situational, and more like the cycle one person would go through given a specific event or issue?
Thursday, February 16, 2012
Hegel's Spirit Found in Morality
Hegelian Morality in Postcoloniality
Hegel's section on Morality consists of a division in the Beautiful Soul, the separation into an Acting and a Judging Consciousness. Dr J outlined briefly the way in which each sees the other as a hypocrite. The Acting Consciousness -- possibly driven by an epiphany of some kind? -- comes to see part of his/her own hypocrisy in the Judging Consciousness. In other words, like all our encounters in the world, Acting Consciousness sees part of him/herself reflected in Judging Consciousness. Despite efforts to point this out to Judging Consciousness, however, s/he is ignored. Acting Consciousness benevolently forgives Judging Consciousness for this refusal to acknowledge their similarities, and this somehow uncovers and incites in Judging Consciounsess to see part of him/herself in Acting Consciousness. In this way reciprocal recognition is achieved.
In a similar way, colonisation was characterised by a refusal to recognise the colonised as human. This was technique used for a variety of reasons, one of them being economic: by constructing the idea of race, and categorising those with non-white skin as inferior, the colonisers were exonerated from guilt for their aggressive exploitation of non-whites. Thus dehumanised, the exploitation of non-white people required no justification or apology. The beginning of this relationship, then, can be equated to the Master-Slave Dialectic discussed in our previous class. In other words, while the master is recognised by the slave, the slave him/herself remains unrecognised and is 'put to work on the world'.
This relationship, however, seems to transform, as it does in consciousness itself. The slave seems to become the Acting Consciousness/colonised and the master the Judging Consciousness/coloniser (correct me if this process doesn't actually follow in the text itself). Thus, via postcolonial writing, the colonised begins using the language of repression to 'write back' and critique their oppressors. This writing can be seen as a type of assertion of their common humanity with the coloniser, and if not a realisation of their own 'hypocrisy' in their oppressors, then definitely the apprehension of some part of thesmelves in the coloniser. As with Hegel's story of Morality, so too the coloniser ignores or refuses to see the colonised in themselves, that is, their common humanity. Though it is an extremely contestable matter as to whether the colonised would forgive at this point, there definitely have been instances of unrequited forgiveness, for example Mahatma Gandhi and Nelson Mandela. In these cases, then, the hard edge of the coloniser is softened and they are led to recognise the common humanity of the colonised.
I realise that this is an idealistic picture, for many 'colonisers' still refuse to see the equal humanity of those who happen to have a different skin colour, especially in South Africa where the structure of Apartheid still reigns stronger than ever, so that even though the framework has been removed, segregatory practices continue to perpetuate themselves. This does not mean, however, that it is not an image of resolution that should be aspired towards.
As an aside, I was wondering whether I am corretc in interpreting the Judging and Acting Consciousness as a transformed continuation of the Slave and Master? If not, what is their relation?
Friday, February 10, 2012
The...Human...Master-Slave Dialectic
Hegel, acknowledging the complexities inherent to the Master-Slave Dialectic, chooses to simplify it for the first-time reader by describing the interactions of the two consciousnesses as if each consciousness were an individual person. This simplification lends the dialectic a narrative quality that makes it approachable to the reader, but I tend to think that it may—in some cases—cloud the reader’s understanding of what is actually going on between consciousnesses within one single consciousness. I say this, not just because I’m confused (I would have been confused, no matter how Hegel would have chosen to describe it), but because I believe that the construction of a fictitious human narrative and the assignment of human qualities to processes that are not really human can lure the untrained or ignorant reader (the not-yet-phenomenologist) into a perception of the text that adheres to, well, the human world. I suppose this yet unsupported statement raises the question, “If the Master-Slave Dialectic is not human, then what is it?” and that is not a question that I am fully prepared to answer. With that said, I don’t think my point is entirely unreasonable.
As I’ve been going through my memory of our discussion in class on Tuesday, I keep revisiting Phong’s objection to the “ceasefire” between the two consciousnesses that eventually results in Hegel’s famous Master-Slave Dialectic. In case you’ve forgotten what he said, I’ll eventually try to paraphrase it concisely in the context of the “bildungsroman” we have been following.
Before ever encountering another consciousness, the self-consciousness travels through its existence in search of something to help it achieve self-certainty. Along the way, it tries to validate its existence to itself by exerting its will on objects that cross its path until it destroys those objects and moves on to greener pastures filled with more destroyable objects. This “Nature of Desire” does ostensibly appeal to the basest human sensibilities, but the encounter with the second consciousness might not. For two consciousnesses to back down from Hegel’s “life and death struggle” in order to preserve the interests of each individual seems probable enough to me, since my real-world experience with consciousnesses is severely limited. However, Hegel’s transition from his unassailable world of phenomenology into a human narrative leaves him open to the assaults of humans like Phong and me.
As Phong said, and I tend to believe, it is unrealistic for a life and death struggle to turn non-violent without some form of communication between the involved parties. Granted, it is in the best interest for both consciousnesses to back down (Interestingly, it was also in the best interest of both involved parties for Aaron Burr not to drop Alexander Hamilton like the Federalist he was). The consciousnesses, however, stop all communication upon engaging in this struggle. I suppose I’m just a little hazy on the line between what is human and what is not human in the Master-Slave Dialectic. Any comments would be appreciated, and I will try my best to defend this somewhat haphazard post.
Sartre's Transcendence of the Ego and Hegel's "Perception"
Though they share the same name, Husserl’s phenomenology hardly resembles Hegel’s. Phenomenology here still refers to the study of appearances, but the methodology is quite different (no Hegelian dialectic as far as I can tell). What’s essential to Husserl’s methodology is called the phenomenological reduction, which involves “bracketing” any positing of some noumenal reality behind the appearances presented to us. What’s left to us is merely a description of appearances in a sort of Cartesian spirit: Describing appearances as they appear to consciousness. So much for the methodology. Husserl had some interesting thoughts on the Ego, the Self, and it bears some similarity to Kant. We conceive of the Ego here as something that unifies all the perceptions of consciousness across time. For Husserl, the ego was a transcendental ego. This means that one’s self is somehow behind the appearances but is not given as an appearance. Rather it is the thing that holds the appearances and all consciousness together. We can deduce from this that the ego is prior to consciousness: Before there is perception of anything, there is still an ego ready to unify whatever is given to it. This last point is important because it is something that Sartre explicitly rejects.
Sartre was also a phenomenologist of the Husserlian kind. His magnum opus Being and Nothingness expands upon the existentialist themes of Kierkegaard, Nietzsche, and Heidegger in a methodology that resembles Husserl. To make many of the claims in this work, Sartre often appeals to his understanding of consciousness as a radical freedom, spontaneity; it is here where Sartre directly diverges with Husserl on the Ego. He completely rejects that the ego is transcendental, that it somehow lies behind appearances as a supersensible entity that holds consciousness together. Rather he sees the ego as a result of the workings of consciousness. In reduced form, for Sartre, there is a prereflective consciousness, for which there is no “I” or self; then there is reflective consciousness, which is not an “I” reflecting on itself but rather consciousness regarding itself as object (At this point there is still no I.); and finally reflection upon reflective consciousness produces the “I,” the ego, the self, and this self provides a sort of stability against the spontaneity of prereflective consciousness. We see then that self does not hold the appearances of consciousness together, but rather that the self is a byproduct of the workings of consciousness.
Okay, so what does this have to do with Hegel? Recall that Hegel says that in Perception we can perceive objects, but either as Also (the table is wooden, and also, firm, and also flat, etc.) or as One (there is a substance that is holding together the properties of the table: being woodeness, firm, flat, etc.). The debate between Husserl and Sartre seems to be an instance of the One vs. Also debate but with regard to the self only. Husserl seems to regard the self in sort of One fashion: The transcendental ego is that stuff that holds its properties, viz. consciousness and its contents, together. Sartre, however, more closely resembles the view of the Also. (Although I admit that for Sartre the analogy is a little loose. I think we can definitely agree though that the self for Sartre is definitely not a One at all.) I thought this was an interesting parallel. For more on Husserl and Sartre, there’s a good podcast on the same subject on Partially Examined Life series that Dr. Johnson mentioned, and I found the article on Sartre’s existentialism on the Internet Encyclopedia of Philosophy informative.
Master-Slave in Artistic/Literary Development
Friday, February 3, 2012
Consciousness as the Protagonist of the Buldingsroman
In his Preface, Hegel describes this process of development beautifully. In the same way that "the bud disappears in the bursting forth of the blossom, and...the former is refuted by the latter" (Hegel 2), so too Consciousness puts forth the bud of Sense-Certainty in an attempt to grasp true knowledge in the world. Finding this process to be unsatisfactory, it uses the defeat encountered in Sense-Certainty as the foundation of a new attempt.
Thus the bud blossoms and applies Perception as a way of finding Truth in the world. Now Consciousness resigns itself to mediation of the Object through itself, and uses Universals as a means of attaining its end. Once again, however, it encounters a problem, and is frustrated. There are two possibilities for Perception: either it encounters an object through the 'Also', that is, a collection of Universals and is indeterminate, or through the 'One', which is determinate and excludes. In this way, then, Consciousness encounters yet another dilemma, for it cannot encounter both a "many" and a "one", an indeterminate and determinate.
And thus Consciousness embarks on the final step of its process of development. It uses 'Force', which Dr. J describes as the Universal which is not sensuous, as the metaphysical lens through which Consciousness encounters the world. That is, the world is encountered as pinned down by physical laws, and in this way Understood.
I would like to offer a different approach to this end point of resolution. Dr. J asserted that, with regard to Perception, Consciousness is also frustrated because every Object stands in relation to another object. In other words, there are essences of other things in every Thing. If one applies an Existentialist approach to this idea, however, surely it is exactly this that allows Understanding. Put differently, looking at things as "ready-to-hand", that is, as connected and related to a web of things around them, allows an understanding of that object. Even if it is a subjective approach, for it requires the perceiving Consciousness to project itself into the Object to a degree, surely it garners understanding. Why would this Existentialist approach be problematic then? Is it unfeasible for Hegel's developing Consciousness to take the path of subjectivity?
Sense-Certainty: An Inherent Problem or One of Language?
Last class on the 31st, we began with a review of sense-certainty and focused on whether we should consider sense-certainty’s frustration merely as a language issue or as an untenable position from the very outset. For awhile, I was firm in the language camp; I thought that sense-certainty was a maintainable form of consciousness if, hypothetically, one never ever wanted to make one’s knowledge communicable through mediation by universals. However, after our discussion, I’d like to change my position. Sense-certainty by its very nature is an untenable state of consciousness and its frustration is inherent and necessitates that it become something else. What follows will reiterate the thoughts said in the discussion and will hopefully illuminate what the problem is exactly and why we should choose one position over the other.
Sense-certainty is that form of consciousness which takes that which is immediately known as the surest form of knowledge. It strictly cannot make any use of universals, for doing so would be to mediate its knowledge; i.e., it takes what is immediately known and then translates it into the language of universal concepts, which would no longer make such knowledge immediate and would contradict the essence of sense-certainty. Thus any violation of immediate knowledge for such a consciousness would force it to reconcile this frustration—usually by becoming a more sophisticated form of consciousness. My instinct was that sense-certainty could remain in this state, where its knowledge is of this, here, and now (but without ever saying those concepts!), so long as it remained in its private world without communicating to others (forcing it to use universals). So long as this, here, and now remain unspoken, primitive immediacies, sense-certainty could maintain itself.
This was my position until we explored more deeply into this relation between consciousness and phenomenal object (if such a term is even applicable to sense-certainty), after which I changed my position to stating that sense-certainty is inherently untenable. If sense-certainty takes in immediate knowledge of the world as immediate, it cannot posit the relation between itself (the “I,” a universal) and its object. Instead, its knowledge is simply of objects as they are, immediately and unconditionally. Anyone familiar with Kant’s insights should be aware that it is problematic whenever the possibility of having immediate, unconditioned knowledge of objects is asserted. Such knowledge amounts to having knowledge of things as they are in themselves, which, according to their definition, is independent of one’s consciousness of it. To say that one is conscious of things as they are in themselves is a manifest contradiction in terms, but this is exactly what sense-certainty does. In not positing a relation between consciousness and object, it has no concept (not surprisingly) of a thing for consciousness, a phenomenal object, which is a necessary assertion for a true understanding of the world. Sense-certainty therefore commits itself by its very nature to an untrue image of the world, one in which a consciousness can know the unknowable. Sense-certainty must become something new.
(Note to Dr. Johnson: I would still like to be considered part of Group 1, so I will be authoring next week as well.)
Empirically Confused
Getting Personal with Hegel
How might Hegel’s work have been a molding of what he already knew? How did the events of Hegel’s life mediate what he was learning and influence the Phenomenology? If Hegel had been theorizing about consciousness after the Phenomenology had been written, what would he have said it? Much of Hegel’s writing and thinking is in response to Kant. What, then, would he have written about had there not been a Kant before him to refute or argue with? We have also referenced the influences of Hegel’s historical context. To what extent should that factor into our analysis of Hegel?
In the same way that we talk about negation with the identity of an object, we can talk about negation with Hegel’s identity. Can Hegel be defined without being not like other philosophers? I know that theories overlap, but if there were no one to negate (or stand in opposition to) the theories of Hegel, would those theories just be truth in life and not a philosophical theory? To define the ‘this’ of philosophical theory, you have to be able to say ‘not this’..? Is there any way to begin theorizing without being influenced by something (a belief, an experience) that could deviate your theory from truth?
I think this might call for some kind of hermeneutic circle...
Thoughts?